What? Are you for real? Is the world so mixed up that a man can't express his love for a lady without being gay? How does that even make sense?
Love poetry goes back as far as Ancient Israel in the Song of Soloman, and there's no reason to think that was the first poem in the love poetry category. According to Wikipedia, and yes I know it's not the most reliable source out there, the oldest know love poem was recited by some king's wife, the king ruled in 2037-2029 BC. Poets to write love poetry include people like T. S. Elliot, Edgar Allan Poe, Sir Walter Raleigh, William Shakespeare, and Charles Dickens just to name a few. So when did this become gay?
Oh, and he writes her songs, because all musicians are gay? The Beatles primary topic of song was love, therefore they must be gay. Every member of every boy band ever in fact must be gay, along with the Rat Pack, Elvis, Barry White, Ja Rule, The Rolling Stones, Garth Brooks, need I go on?
So how does one possibly think that because a guy expresses his affection for a girl through poetry and song he must be gay? I simply cannot fathom how the jump is made. Perhaps I'm missing something but just because a guy shows sensitivity instead of just pounding in the face of any guy that looks at his girl does not make him gay.